MLS(ASCP/ASCPi) 7영역 문제은행

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200 문제

• A patient's ABO testing gives the following reactions: anti-A 0, anti-B 4+, A1 reagent cel…
• A pretransfusion antibody screen is positive with both screening cells, but the patient's …
• Ten minutes after a platelet transfusion begins, the patient develops fever, rigors, and h…
• A bleeding patient has a markedly decreased fibrinogen concentration, while the clinical t…
• Urine microscopy shows casts containing numerous red blood cells. Which interpretation is …
• After a reagent lot change, both levels of chemistry control shift above their established…
• Arterial blood gas results are pH 7.28, PCO2 28 mm Hg, and HCO3- 13 mmol/L. Using Winter's…
• A patient has total calcium 7.6 mg/dL, albumin 2.0 g/dL, and ionized calcium within the re…
• A severely lipemic specimen has sodium 121 mmol/L by an indirect ion-selective electrode, …
• Which laboratory pattern most strongly supports uncomplicated iron deficiency anemia?
• An automated CBC reports platelets 28 × 10^9/L with a platelet-clump flag. The patient has…
• A patient has an isolated prolonged aPTT. The result corrects into the reference interval …
• A hematology analyzer that does not automatically exclude nucleated red blood cells report…
• A patient with findings strongly suggestive of secondary syphilis has a reactive treponema…
• Two blood culture sets were collected from an adult. One bottle in one set grows a common …
• During disk diffusion susceptibility testing, the required quality-control strain produces…
• A sputum smear is positive for acid-fast bacilli. Which statement is most accurate?
• A thick blood film is positive for malaria parasites. Which specimen examination is most u…
• A laboratory's monthly indicator shows a sharp increase in hemolyzed chemistry specimens i…
• After venipuncture, what is the safest OSHA-consistent handling of the contaminated needle…
• Seven days after red cell transfusion, a patient develops jaundice, a falling hemoglobin, …
• A group AB patient requires plasma. Which ABO plasma is the first-choice compatible produc…
• Which modification of a cellular blood component is used to prevent transfusion-associated…
• A massively bleeding patient has prolonged PT and aPTT due to deficiency of multiple coagu…
• Urine sediment contains colorless hexagonal plates. Which crystal is most strongly suggest…
• A patient with ongoing hemolysis has frequent high glucose measurements but an unexpectedl…
• Which bilirubin pattern is most consistent with increased red cell destruction when hepati…
• Measured serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/kg and calculated osmolality is 290 mOsm/kg. Which i…
• When a true trough concentration is requested for a repeatedly dosed drug, when should the…
• Marked granulocytic leukocytosis with basophilia is present, and chronic myeloid leukemia …
• A sickle solubility screen is positive. Which next test best distinguishes sickle trait fr…
• D-dimer is produced by degradation of which material?
• An automated WBC count is 50.0 x 10^9/L, and the smear shows 25 nucleated red blood cells …
• Which immunoglobulin class is generally produced first during a primary humoral immune res…
• A gram-positive coccus in clusters is catalase positive and tube coagulase positive. Which…
• A catalase-negative gram-positive coccus hydrolyzes esculin in bile, is PYR positive, and …
• For upper respiratory molecular testing for influenza, which specimen is generally preferr…
• A yeast isolate produces true germ tubes after incubation in serum. Which organism is most…
• One chemistry control result exceeds the mean by more than 3 standard deviations. Under th…
• A technologist needs 50 mL of a 1:10 dilution. How should it be prepared?
• A patient's antibody screen and autocontrol react at 37 C and the antiglobulin phase with …
• Which postpartum patient is the typical candidate for Rh immune globulin prophylaxis when …
• A massively bleeding patient has a fibrinogen concentration of 75 mg/dL. Which component m…
• A newborn is anemic and jaundiced. The maternal antibody screen contains anti-K, and the n…
• Cerebrospinal fluid remains yellow after centrifugation, while the supernatant is clear of…
• Which pattern is most consistent with untreated primary hypothyroidism?
• A patient with chronic kidney disease has a persistently elevated high-sensitivity troponi…
• A visibly hemolyzed serum specimen produces a potassium result much higher than the patien…
• Why is estimated glomerular filtration rate generally more informative than serum creatini…
• Which iron-study pattern most strongly supports uncomplicated iron deficiency?
• Abnormal promyelocytes with heavy granulation and bundles of Auer rods are seen in a patie…
• An asymptomatic patient has a platelet count of 28 x 10^9/L. The analyzer flags platelet c…
• An isolated prolonged aPTT corrects into the reference interval immediately after a 1:1 mi…
• A patient has an undetectable CH50 but a normal AH50. Which defect is most consistent with…
• An alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative gram-positive diplococcus is optochin susceptible an…
• A nonfermenting gram-negative rod is oxidase positive, grows at 42 C, and produces a blue-…
• When malaria is suspected, what is the principal advantage of examining both thick and thi…
• An immunocompromised patient has meningitis. A yeast recovered from CSF is urease positive…
• A method detects 90 of 100 patients who truly have a disease. What is the diagnostic sensi…
• A verified potassium result meets the laboratory's critical-value threshold. Which action …
• A patient with marked hyperproteinemia shows unexpected weak reactions with both reagent r…
• A donor's red cells are nonreactive at immediate-spin anti-D testing but react at the weak…
• A patient has poor corrected count increments after two ABO-compatible platelet transfusio…
• During a platelet transfusion, a patient develops abrupt high fever, rigors, and hypotensi…
• Which polarized-light finding is characteristic of monosodium urate crystals in synovial f…
• Serum protein electrophoresis shows a narrow, tall spike in the gamma region. Which follow…
• Which serum enzyme is generally more pancreas-specific and remains elevated longer than am…
• A patient presents one hour after a single acute acetaminophen ingestion. Why is a level o…
• Which laboratory pattern is most consistent with SIADH in a clinically euvolemic patient?
• A patient has chronic hemolysis, spherocytes, an increased MCHC, and a negative DAT. Which…
• Which CBC and smear pattern is most typical of immune thrombocytopenia after pseudothrombo…
• A patient with recurrent thrombosis has a prolonged aPTT that does not correct in a mixing…
• A blast population is positive for CD34 and terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase. What do…
• Which immune mechanism principally mediates a delayed type IV hypersensitivity reaction?
• Which bench profile best supports a typical nontyphoidal Salmonella isolate?
• An oxidase-positive gram-negative diplococcus isolated from a genital specimen produces ac…
• Which finding most strongly supports Giardia infection in a stool examination?
• Which statement best compares commonly used laboratory tests for RSV?
• After a new reagent lot is introduced, both levels of chemistry control remain on the same…
• A patient's hemoglobin changes from 14.2 g/dL to 7.1 g/dL within two hours without a compa…
• Why is routine reverse ABO grouping generally not interpreted in a newborn in the same way…
• A previously identified anti-Jka is no longer detectable in a current antibody screen. Wha…
• A bleeding patient requires red cells before pretransfusion testing is complete. What is t…
• During rapid massive transfusion, a patient develops prolonged QT and hypotension. Which l…
• Pleural fluid protein is 3.6 g/dL and serum protein is 6.0 g/dL. Based on the protein comp…
• Using anion gap = Na - (Cl + HCO3), what is the gap when Na is 140 mmol/L, Cl is 104 mmol/…
• Which arterial blood-gas pattern indicates primary respiratory acidosis before considering…
• In a typical competitive immunoassay, how does the measured signal relate to the concentra…
• Alkaline phosphatase is markedly elevated. Which additional enzyme elevation supports a he…
• Which peripheral-smear finding is most characteristic of megaloblastic anemia caused by vi…
• Which laboratory pattern best supports acute disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• A patient has delayed bleeding and poor wound healing, but PT and aPTT are normal. Which d…
• Strong myeloperoxidase positivity in leukemic blasts most directly supports which lineage?
• The rheumatoid factor detected by many routine assays is most commonly which antibody?
• A formed stool specimen from an asymptomatic patient is submitted for C. difficile NAAT. W…
• Which specimen is preferred for culture of a suspected deep anaerobic abscess?
• Which microscopic morphology most strongly suggests Aspergillus in tissue?
• A young adult has fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, atypical lymphocytes, and a positiv…
• For a nonparametric reference interval representing the central 95% of a healthy reference…
• Repeated control measurements cluster tightly together but are consistently far above the …
• A peripheral blood smear shows numerous elongated red cells with pointed, crescent-shaped …
• A bone marrow blast contains a distinct rod-shaped, red-purple cytoplasmic inclusion. This…
• A Gram stain of purulent wound exudate shows gram-positive cocci arranged in grape-like cl…
• A thin blood film shows red cells with multiple small ring forms and occasional banana-sha…
• Microscopic examination of urine sediment reveals colorless, octahedral (envelope-shaped) …
• A neutrophil with six separate nuclear lobes is seen on a peripheral blood smear. This fin…
• An 82-year-old patient shows 4+ agglutination with anti-A and no reaction with anti-B on f…
• A previously transfused patient has a negative antibody screen, but one of three donor uni…
• An antibody identification panel shows reactivity only with cells positive for the K antig…
• Reverse typing on a patient shows unexpected reactivity with both A1 cells and B cells at …
• Five days after a red cell transfusion, a patient has an unexplained fall in hemoglobin, a…
• A patient has anti-K and anti-Jka. If approximately 91 percent of donors are K negative an…
• Two hours after a plasma transfusion, a patient develops acute dyspnea with bilateral pulm…
• A massively transfused trauma patient has a fibrinogen level of 80 mg per deciliter with c…
• A newborn requires an exchange transfusion for hemolytic disease caused by maternal anti-D…
• A patient typed as weak D positive by a previous facility has now formed anti-D. What is t…
• Reverse typing shows agglutination with both A1 and B cells in a patient with a markedly i…
• An antibody reacts at the antiglobulin phase, but the reactivity is abolished when panel c…
• Which antibody is most frequently implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions be…
• Platelet concentrates must be stored under which condition?
• Why must IgG-coated check cells be added to all negative antihuman globulin tests?
• A patient sample shows all panel cells reactive, a reactive autologous control, and a dire…
• Which measure is most effective in preventing recurrent febrile nonhemolytic transfusion r…
• A patient has a red cell count of 4.0 million per microliter, a hemoglobin of 9.0 g per de…
• A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has a mild normocytic anemia, a normal to increased fe…
• A patient has an MCV of 115 fL, hypersegmented neutrophils on the smear, and a mild pancyt…
• A patient has a reticulocyte count of 6 percent and a hematocrit of 20 percent. What is th…
• A patient has spherocytes on the peripheral smear and a positive direct antiglobulin test.…
• A hemoglobin solubility test is positive. What additional testing is required to distingui…
• Several days after starting an oxidant drug, a patient develops anemia. The smear shows bi…
• A patient has a white cell count of 150,000 per microliter with the full spectrum of granu…
• A 70-year-old patient has a white cell count of 80,000 per microliter composed mainly of s…
• A patient with acute leukemia presents with bleeding, a prolonged PT and aPTT, a low fibri…
• An automated platelet count is 40,000 per microliter, but the patient has no bleeding and …
• A patient has a prolonged PT with a normal aPTT. Which deficiency is most consistent with …
• A septic patient has a prolonged PT and aPTT, a decreased fibrinogen, an increased D- dime…
• A patient has a prolonged aPTT that does not correct on a mixing study. The patient has no…
• An automated white cell count is 20.0 thousand per microliter, and the differential shows …
• Which condition would cause a falsely decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate?
• Blood gas results are pH 7.48, pCO2 30 mmHg, and bicarbonate 22 mmol per liter. How should…
• A patient has a sodium of 140, a chloride of 100, and a bicarbonate of 15 mmol per liter. …
• A patient has a total calcium of 7.6 mg per deciliter and an albumin of 2.0 g per decilite…
• Which set of analytes is most affected by in vitro hemolysis?
• Whole blood is left at room temperature for six hours before separation, with no glycolysi…
• A patient with metabolic acidosis has a markedly increased osmolal gap. Which cause should…
• A patient has a markedly increased alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase wit…
• A jaundiced patient has an increased total bilirubin that is predominantly unconjugated, w…
• A patient presents two hours after the onset of chest pain. Which marker is most likely to…
• A fasting lipid panel shows total cholesterol 250, HDL cholesterol 50, and triglycerides 1…
• A patient has an increased TSH with a decreased free T4. Which condition is most likely?
• Which specimen collection condition is most important when measuring cortisol?
• A patient has a urea nitrogen of 60 mg per deciliter with a creatinine of 1.0 mg per decil…
• Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
• In a spectrophotometric assay obeying Beer's law, the absorbance of a sample doubles. What…
• A grossly lipemic specimen is received for chemistry testing. Which effect is most likely?
• When is a trough concentration collected for therapeutic drug monitoring?
• A gram positive coccus from the urine of a young woman is catalase positive, coagulase neg…
• A beta-hemolytic gram positive coccus in chains from a throat culture is susceptible to ba…
• A gram positive coccus grows in 6.5 percent sodium chloride and hydrolyzes bile esculin. W…
• A gram negative rod from urine ferments lactose on MacConkey agar and is indole positive. …
• A gram negative rod produces large mucoid lactose-fermenting colonies, is indole negative,…
• A non-lactose-fermenting gram negative rod swarms across the blood agar plate and is stron…
• A gram negative rod from a ventilator-associated pneumonia is oxidase positive, does not f…
• A curved gram negative rod is oxidase positive and grows on TCBS agar. Which organism shou…
• A stool culture incubated at 42 degrees Celsius under microaerophilic conditions grows cur…
• A small gram negative coccobacillus grows only near colonies of Staphylococcus aureus on b…
• Which agent is used in disk diffusion testing to detect methicillin resistance in Staphylo…
• An isolate of Klebsiella pneumoniae is resistant to carbapenems. What is the most appropri…
• Which condition is most important for the recovery of anaerobic organisms from a wound spe…
• On re-exposure to the same antigen, which change is characteristic of the secondary immune…
• An antinuclear antibody test shows a homogeneous pattern at a high titer. Which follow- up…
• Rheumatoid factor is best described as which of the following?
• A patient is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen and for IgM antibody to hepatitis B …
• A serum sample from a patient with clinical signs of secondary syphilis is nonreactive on …
• Which complement finding is most consistent with active immune complex disease?
• Which flow cytometry measurement is used to monitor immune status in HIV infection?
• A urine dipstick is positive for both nitrite and leukocyte esterase. Which finding is mos…
• Which urinary finding is most specific for glomerular bleeding?
• Broad and waxy casts in the urine sediment are most consistent with which condition?
• A urine specific gravity measured by refractometer is unexpectedly high. Which substance i…
• A urine specimen is strongly positive for both glucose and ketones. Which condition is mos…
• A urine dipstick is strongly positive for blood, but no red blood cells are seen microscop…
• A patient with multiple myeloma has a negative urine protein dipstick, but the sulfosalicy…
• Cerebrospinal fluid shows a decreased glucose, a markedly increased protein, and a predomi…
• Cerebrospinal fluid collected in three sequential tubes shows equal red cell counts in all…
• Synovial fluid from a painful great toe contains needle-shaped crystals that are negativel…
• Blood cultures are ordered along with a complete blood count and a coagulation panel. Whic…
• A light blue top tube is received underfilled. What is the expected effect on coagulation …
• A control result falls more than three standard deviations from the mean. What is the appr…
• Both levels of control exceed two standard deviations in the same direction on the same ru…
• A Levey-Jennings chart shows control values gradually increasing over ten consecutive days…
• Which statement correctly describes accuracy?
• A patient's potassium result today is markedly different from the result reported yesterda…
• A critical value is obtained on a patient specimen. Which action is correct?
• A specimen arrives with a label that does not match the requisition. What should the labor…
• A screening test correctly identifies 90 of 100 patients who truly have a disease. What do…
• Which statement about predictive value is correct?
• Which solution is generally recommended for decontaminating a blood spill on a laboratory …
• How must proficiency testing samples be handled?
• A technologist sustains a needlestick injury from a patient specimen. What is the correct …