A nurse is counseling a 28-year-old woman taking valproate f… | 마이메르시 MyMerci
Assignment/Delegation/Supervision HPM
Question

A nurse is counseling a 28-year-old woman taking valproate for bipolar disorder who has just learned she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which statement is the most clinically accurate?

Explanation

Correct (2): Valproate has the <span class="merci-kw-mark">highest teratogenic risk</span> of all anticonvulsants — neural tube defects (1-2% absolute risk), cardiac and craniofacial malformations, and ~30% reduction in IQ with documented developmental delay. The critical period is the first trimester (NTDs by week 4-5; she is past that point but ongoing exposure adds harm). Urgent multidisciplinary planning is required for safest transition. (1) Dangerous. (3) Herbal substitution is contraindicated. (4) First-trimester exposure has already occurred.

In-depth explanation

<span class="merci-scenario-label">Memory Tip</span> Valproate = anticonvulsant most toxic to fetus. Avoid in any woman of reproductive age unless absolutely no alternative AND on robust contraception. Folate ≥4 mg/day if exposure unavoidable.

Clinical scenario

<span class="merci-scenario-label">Scenario</span> 28-year-old female on <span class="merci-kw-mark">valproate 1000 mg/day</span> for bipolar disorder. Pregnancy test positive at 6 weeks gestation. Stable on current regimen.

Key concepts

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For study reference only. Always follow current clinical guidelines and your institution’s protocols.