A nurse is teaching a 74-year-old client newly prescribed mi… | MyMerci
Medical Emergencies PA
Question

A nurse is teaching a 74-year-old client newly prescribed mirtazapine 7.5 mg PO at bedtime for depression with poor appetite and insomnia. Which statement indicates effective teaching?

Explanation
Correct (2): Mirtazapine is unique among antidepressants for its strong sedation and appetite stimulation at low doses (≤15 mg) due to potent H1 histamine and 5-HT2A/2C blockade. These properties are clinically exploited in older adults with comorbid depression, insomnia, and weight loss. (1) Incorrect — bedtime dosing is essential for the sedative benefit. (3) Tyramine restriction applies to MAOIs. (4) Weight gain is often a desired effect in this client and not a reason to stop.

In-depth explanation

Memory Tip Mirtazapine = "MORE sedation at LOWER dose" — paradoxical because higher doses recruit more noradrenergic activity. Clinical Practice Guide Useful niche: depressed elderly with anorexia and insomnia where SSRI weight loss/insomnia side effects would be harmful.

Clinical scenario

Scenario 74-year-old female with major depression, weight loss, and chronic insomnia. Provider prescribed mirtazapine 7.5 mg PO HS, chosen for its sedation and appetite stimulation at low dose.

Key concepts

Browse all questions No login required

Master the NCLEX-RN with MyMerci

Thousands of NCLEX-style questions with detailed rationale — in your language. Track your progress and study smarter.

Start for free
Read in another language: English한국어日本語繁體中文Tiếng Việt

For study reference only. Always follow current clinical guidelines and your institution’s protocols.