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Question

A patient on mechanical ventilation has bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, no signs of cardiogenic edema, FiO2 0.80, PEEP 12, and a PaO2 of 88 mm Hg (PaO2/FiO2 ratio 110). The provider has ordered prone positioning. Which is the nurse's best understanding of why prone positioning is being used?

Explanation
A PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 110 with bilateral infiltrates and no cardiogenic origin meets Berlin criteria for moderate ARDS (P/F 100–200) approaching severe (
Next question on this topicA 64-year-old patient three days post-MI has BP 84/62, HR 124, distant heart sounds, jugul…

In-depth explanation

ARDS Berlin criteria require acute onset within one week, bilateral infiltrates on imaging, edema not fully explained by cardiac failure or volume overload, and a PaO2/FiO2 ratio defining severity — mild 200–300, moderate 100–200, severe

Clinical scenario

A patient on mechanical ventilation has bilateral infiltrates on CXR, no signs of cardiogenic edema, FiO2 0.80, PEEP 12, and a PaO2 88 mm Hg (PaO2/FiO2 110). The provider orders prone positioning.

Key concepts

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